logic
Submitted by F.O.D. on January 24 2001 09:45:53
In reply to Just some thoughts on homosexuality & the Bible. submitted by Jordan on January 24 2001 06:09:11
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Regardless of how "pro-gay" theology would attempt to reconstruct or reinterpret the texts, it is quite obvious that these texts are prohibitions against practicing such acts... for any reason at all. You're not making any sense. If pro-gay theology has correctly reinterpreted the texts, then how on earth can you claim that nevertheless those same texts "prohibit" such acts? Either the texts do prohibit them, or they do not. They cannot be "obviously" prohibiting them if at the same time those texts are not prohibiting them. Now you can argue that pro-gay theology in incorrect, but you can not say your interpretation is correct regardless of what pro-gay theology says. To do so is to say "you're obviously wrong because what you say is different to what I say and I'm right". Fod |
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