Christian Boylove Forum

Re: Ok, so it depends on the receiving parties?


Submitted by Reason Filled on 2002-11-12 23:21:33, Tuesday
In reply to Re: Ok, so it depends on the receiving parties? submitted by JohnDoe420 on 2002-11-12 23:08:58, Tuesday


Mark

10:6
But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
10:7
For this cause * * shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
10:8
And they twain shall be one * * flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
10:9
What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.


Now, marriage requires nothing but a vow between a man and woman to each other and God.

Let's go even further.

1 Corinthians

7:1
Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.
7:2
Nevertheless *, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

Now, what is Paul telling the Church of Corinth? It would be ideal that a man never have sex with a woman (i.e. if he could COMPLETELY dedicate his life to God). However, since very few possess that strength, we should get married in order to avoid fornication. Now, if, indeed, we could enjoy sex, outside of marriage, why then would he make this statement?


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