Re: Just about 90%
Submitted by Reason Filled on 2002-11-23 23:16:16, Saturday
In reply to Re: Just about 90% submitted by World Perfect on 2002-11-23 22:31:41, Saturday
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Anytime "sexual immorality" is mentioned, it means; sex outside of marriage. How can we arrive at that? Well let's go to 1st Corinthians 6:16, where Paul is speaking on why we should not have sex with prostitutes: 6:16 Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For "the two," He says, "shall become one flesh." What he is saying is that, when two people engage in sexual intercourse, they are made "one flesh". It uses Genesis 2:24 ("Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.") to say this. Therefore, one can only conclude that marriage and sex should be congruent. To push the point further, let's go back to 1st Corinthians under chapter 7. 7:1 Now concerning the things of which you wrote to me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. 7:2 Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. Tell me, why is Paul telling us to wed, in order to prevent us from sexual immorality, if we can engage in sex outside of marriage without sinning? |
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