Overall, I think this is a fairly good analysis. But there are a few things I do have an issue with. Please keep in mind while reading this that I do not disagree with much of what you wrote, but of course I am only highlighting those things which I do disagree with, because I find them to be the things worth examining c;pser.


Obviously from a Scriptural view, marriage between a man and a woman is God’s provision for these aspects of our sexuality… BUT?

That sounds to me like another presupposition. Countless people disagree with you on this; entire denominations do. So apparently it isn't that obvious after all.

I don't disagree with you on this myself, but I find it distasteful to brush aside the beliefs of so many people, some who participate on this very forum by claiming your interpretation to be obvious.

The often quoted verse concerning adultery in the heart from Matt 5:28 may not mean what it is often taken to mean.

Here, you begin a straw man argument. You choose a verse that you find easy to counter and you proscribe to those who would disagree with you a belief based on that verse. The fact is that there are plenty of references to lust in the bible and I know of no one who bases their entire argument against lust on only the one verse you chose for them.

Among the references to lust:
Colossians 3:5, 1 peter 2:11, James 1:14, 1 John 2:16, Galatians 5:19, proverbs 6:25, etc.

Now, of course I don't expect you to refute every single verse anyone might point out. But you should do a little better than a straw argument. Let's hear about why your view is right rather than why one verse in the opposing view is wrong.

However, it is important to acknowledge that this sexual outlet is not equal to our sexual desires. The gift of marriage is not about sexual satisfaction. Nowhere does Scripture promise the fulfilment of all sexual desire through marriage. If you talk to married men you will find from their experience that marriage is far from being an explosion of sexual fulfilment. Marriage is more a subordination of sexual passion than an expression of it. Every married man still has the same sexual desires that would lead him into sexual immorality that unmarried men have.
How then does marriage help?

A big part of your theory seems to hinge on this idea that no person is truly sexually satisfied. This begs the question of where you are getting your data from. We know from current studies that this is very likely to be untrue when it comes to women, since studies have concluded that most married women are, in fact, sexually satisfied. But what makes you think that it is any different for men? Do you have some evidence to back this up or is it only a hunch?