and it is a challenge I need to hear. However my argument from history is that if we can't show that something was applicable in a certain set of historical circumstances, then our interpretation of the scriptures is probably wrong. Certainly in the arena of international affairs, I don't believe this is applicable - it's application to them is what got us into WW2 (appeasement). Now either my historical interpretation has got to bend, or my theology.... messy! |