A Possible Reference to Pederasty in the Gospels
Submitted by J on January 21 2002 00:02:11
In reply to Re: The Centurion's Servant and the Greek 'Malakoi' submitted by Nate on January 20 2002 16:39:36
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Dear Nate, You’re welcome and sorry about using Greek font exclusively. In this post (and all future ones), I will use the Greek font and follow it up with the common English transliteration. Indeed, I believe the use of o paiV mou (ho pais mou – the boy of me) does imply some affection or familiarity, but not enough to assume a BL relationship for sure. For example, this same phrase (ho pais mou) is used to describe Jesus as the servant of the Lord in the LXX (Greek translation of the Old Testament) of Isaiah and is cited as such in Matthew’s gospel (compare LXX of Isaiah 42:1 with Matthew 12:18). As well, the famous Suffering Servant passages begin with the description of Jesus as ‘ho pais mou’ (cf. LXX of Isaiah 52:13). A.I. Watcher has provided some great information that I was unaware of about the practice (or rather, the lack thereof) of keeping male servants for the purpose of sex within the Roman legion, which supports the conclusion that the centurion’s servant healed by Jesus is not very likely a loved boy. Again, JohnQ has done an excellent job providing you with the root meaning of malakoi (malakoi) as ‘soft’. Please see my response to JohnQ (linked below) for a more detailed examination of ‘malakoi’ in 1 Corinthians 6:9. As for your more general question, there is no direct reference made in all of Scripture to the practice of pederasty. With that said, there is one possible reference that is made by Jesus Himself, which relies on a similarity in wording with a reference made in the Babylonian Talmud of pederasty as a violation of marriage that resulted in harm to children through offending with hand or foot, and that offending limbs should be cut off rather than going down whole to the pit of destruction (Niddah 13b). The similarity between this and Jesus’ words in Matthew 18:6-9 and Mark 9:42-47, both in context to harming children (though not specifically in a sexual way), is striking. Matthew 5:27-30, however, employs the same wording of cutting off offending limbs to a man who commits adultery with a woman, which is also a violation of marriage. The reference to pederasty in the Talmud is likewise linked to a violation of marriage and the ancient Greek practice was coexistent in the majority of cases with heterosexual marriage. Contextually speaking, the condemnation of pederasty seems to be linked to a violation of the marriage covenant between a man and woman and not, at least not in my opinion, a condemnation of man/boy sex in and of itself within the bounds of its own marriage-like union. Love in the Lord, J |
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