So, how you get the impression that it only begins manifesting later in life, I don't know. I remember sexual dreams I had in kindergarten, and fantasies that occurred throughout childhood.

I can only go based on my own experience, and I have no recollection of any sexual attractions prior to puberty.

Rainboy: how can anyone know prior to that time whether or not such attractions are hardwired? Am I missing something?

Blackstone: The fact that sexual orientation is hardwired is not in question. ... The question, then, isn't whether it is hardwired but rather at what age does it become hardwired.

I didn't mean to imply (with the statement you quoted above) that attractions are NOT hardwired. You can add "yet" after "hardwired" to make it clearer. I just meant, for a particular individual, if attractions have not yet manifest, how can anyone know if hardwiring has taken place yet (in that particular individual). Anyway, moving on.

The bigger question is. When faced with a mountain of evidence of the opposing view and only some anecdotes from biased sources to back up your own, why would you choose to hang on to your belief?

Well, as I said, I'm going based on my experience. I admit I have not done much reading on this subject, and I probably should. But not knowing where to start, and not having a background in this stuff, it can be quite daunting. On that subject, thank you for the links. Up until now you've boldly stated various things as fact, but haven't provided any references, so all I've had to go on have been your statements and my strongly held beliefs (admittedly based on anecdotal evidence and my own personal experience). The reference help.

I find the following research you quoted a little odd:

http://www.uel.ac.uk/news/press_releases/releases/s_or.htm

The heading claims "Sexual orientation 'hard-wired' before birth - startling new evidence", and then the article proceeds to talk about studying eye-blink responses (to loud noises) between different genders and orientations, and concludes that, on average, straight men have a PPI of 40%, "while gay men averaged 32%, an intermediate response slightly lower than for straight men". It hardly seems startling to me, but maybe scientists are more easily startled than regular folk :-)

[I realize the study involves startling people, so the heading is humorous, but still, the evidence doesn't seem all that compelling to me. Anyway...]

---

This discussion has caused me to remember something from my kindergarten days. I remember that I used to be teased for crossing my legs (above the knees), and was told "that's how ladies sit". Now that's a total gay stereotype. Why did I do that? This might be seen as proof that my orientation was hardwired at that stage already ... but maybe not. What if it's simply that I was a "mama's boy" and hardly spent any time with my dad, and so, didn't learn how to sit using him as a role model. [I learned from my mom...]

Is my orientation a result of my strong connection with my mother (and lack of connection with my dad)? I'm sure you probably frown on that statement, but ... it seems logical to me that mannerisms (like ways of sitting) are likely learned from those around the child (with whom he identifies) -- if my "gay" mannerisms were developed that way, isn't it feasible my attractions have a similar root cause (i.e. relationship to parents)?

Again, this is me being anecdotal and relying on my own hair-brained theories and personal experience. There's a lot of ammo there for a "smackdown". Go for it.

But, I am genuinely interested in your view (and the view of others!) as to the development of "gay" mannerisms (e.g. leg crossing, limp wrists, etc.) How do the mannerisms relate to the attractions themselves? What came first? Do they have a similar cause?

Blessings,
Rainboy