Hi guys,

I'm just curious on this specific topic because I've come across it some online sources and some people have claimed that being molested as a child caused them to develop Pedophilia so I just want to learn more about it.

I guess I'm having a hard time understanding how this can occur because it is different from my own experiences as being a BL, for me my feelings and attractions have been crystal clear since puberty. The only problem I had was coming to terms with what I felt and experienced and I was in denial hoping I was just gay. But for others it seems sexuality is not as clear cut, we often hear in society people who are uncertain of their attractions and they experiment or discover later they are bi-sexual or gay but I don't understand how anyone can confuse sexuality as I don't feel there is much thought process involved, you just feel what you feel and that's all there is to it.

But back on topic so how does being molested cause anyone to abandon their original determined sexuality from birth, what happens to their original sexuality when they become pedophiles? Is the conversion drastic enough to change them from being attracted to a different gender then their original attraction? Is sexuality so pliable that it can be manipulated and shifted so easily, if so then why isn't changing back as easy?

If being abused caused them to become pedophiles then how does this relate to the research and study claiming pedophiles have a detectable difference in brain matter or they are slightly shorter in average length, does this mean that pedophilia can be caused by two different reasons, biologically or due to abuse?

If a person is likely to become a pedophile due to being abused as a child then does this mean only children are susceptible to altered sexuality? if so what age causes such a conversion to occur? for eg if abused children between the ages of 5- 11 were likely to become pedophiles due to being abused then does this mean that any child outside of that age range such as a 12 year old would be less likely to become a pedophile if abused? If being abused lead to pedophilia then why does this not apply to every child who was abused sexually ? I'm sorry with all the questions and I don't expect anyone to answer them but I just wanted to put my thoughts out there if anyone could enlighten me. Thanks.