Re: The Centurion's Servant and the Greek 'Malakoi'
Submitted by Nate on January 20 2002 16:39:36
In reply to The Centurion's Servant and the Greek 'Malakoi' submitted by J on January 20 2002 04:40:49
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Hi J, I envy you the ability to go in and find these things, and I appreciate your being willing to share them with us. OK, in regards to the Centurions "boy", I can accept your conclusion. Though his use of (boy of me) rather than his more common (slave of me)might imply some affection or familiarity, certainly that is not enough to assume that it was a boylove relationship - though, as you say, it remains a possibility just because the cultural practice did exist. But about "malakoi": that is a huge difference to suggest that Paul meant "self-indugent" rather than refering to some sexual practice! Shouldn't we take a look at the root words, and find more contextual uses of the word before we decide? Is it really that difficult to discern the true meaning of a Greek word that we could get such a variation in translation? This is shaking my faith in the unshakable Word of God! You know, it matters to me personally whether or not being a loved boy is specifically condemned in scripture! (Or is it my fancy hat that is the problem?!) Anyway, my more general question remains - and I guess it would be a very difficult question to answer. Is there any reference made at all in scripture to the practice of pedarasty (in the original languages)? And the obvious follow-on to that: What was Jesus response, if any, to that cultural practice? It would be significant to me even if he did not make a big deal of it (passive acceptance). On a side note: those Greek letters are real cool and all, but "its all Greek to me." I find it more helpful when you transliterate (or whatever) to English letters. That way I can relate better to what you are saying about each word. Thanks for all the great insight! Nate |
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