A Question, please
Submitted by Triple Q on April 14 1999 at 14:47:51
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Common practice among the early Jewish-Christian nations involved marriages between widely disparating age groups. Case in point, Bible scholars believe that Joseph was in his 40s when he married his child-bride, 12-year-old Mary. (Btw, some Bible scholars also believe that Joseph was a member of the Essene community mentioned in the Dead Sea Scrolls. Within the scrolls is a text on marriage responsibilities. In effect, the Essenes could take brides as young as they liked but they could not be sexually active until they had waited a certain period. Four years, I believe. BUT, if the husband could not wait, they were allowed to go ahead and have sex. The bride, despite the sexual activity, would still be considered a VIRGIN until she arrived at the specific time allotted. This would totally destroy the VIRGIN birth myth of the Bible but that isn't the point of this post. :) Anyway, the question is: The issue of homosexuality aside, if girls were considered adult (responsible) enough to begin a family life at 12, why is it not the same with boys? Considering that in the Jewish nation a boy is considered to become a "man" at 12 by virtue of his Bar Mitzvah, why does he not have the same rights and responsibilities of an "adult" man? |